Antoot tips and guides

UpBux really pays!

2010-01-17T17:57:00.000-11:00

Hello friends! If you want to know a trusted PTC site besides NeoBux.. Here is UpBux . It really pays, they said its the best competitor of NeoBux now. Well I just got my $2 yesterday. :) Now what are you waiting for? Join now. Here is the link.

Koreans HATE message towards Filipinos

2009-10-03T05:54:00.003-11:00

Text spreading in Philippines about the Korean's hate message. Recently on news in the Philippines, It was also been reported. We know that every individual can express their selves in INTERNET but remember there's always a LIMITATION for everything. But do these Individuals know what are they talking about? How can they say in the middle of CRISIS that FILIPINOS as THIRD WORLD MONKEYS that deserve to DIE in the flood because MONKEYS can’t swim? What if they are the one who felt this tragic? Then someone will tell them that they deserve to DIE? What would they feel?

Right down below is the conversation of Koreans talking foul things about Filipinos.

@carmento I hope it keeps raining and die in floods like those filipino monkeys about 19 hours ago from web in reply to carmento
@jen_shwa 정말 사진 잘 나왔어요! ㅋㅋㅋㅋ!!!!! 좋아서 죽을 거 같아요!!!!6:40 PM Sep 27th from web
@POOHNIDA 감사합니다!6:34 PM Sep 27th from web in reply to POOHNIDA
@soapysuds Just give them your dinner. It should be enough to feed the whole country or 2 days ㅋㅋㅋ Or let them cook u, that will last 2 yrs!6:30 PM Sep 27th from web in reply to soapysuds
@HelloMaiAzn Too bad I can’t understand ur bad English otherwise I would reply 2 u!Thanks 4 being fatter & uglier than me! I feel pretty now6:29 PM Sep 27th from web
@WGyenny 야! 예은! 지금 한국에서! 지금 뭐해? I love watching those filipinos suffer and drowning in their 3rd world monkey island! Monkeys can’t swim! ㅋㅋ6:26 PM Sep 27th from web in reply to WGyenny
@tangkwa I know u envy me because u told me ur a big fan of me. Thank u 8:43 AM Sep 27th from web in reply to tangkwa
@KennyLovesWG Wat r u talking about? Thanks 4 being a fan of us 8:40 AM Sep 27th from web in reply to KennyLovesWG
@MarryU5170 Hi! She messaged me 1st because she’s a big fan of me and WG! Thank u too 4 ur support ^^8:38 AM Sep 27th from web in reply to MarryU5170
@yoobin_pig I’m not a pig! pigs r cute!1:13 AM Sep 27th from web in reply to yoobin_pig
@MoLteaser Thanks 4 being a fan of me and WG! I will send u Spam if u cannot afford that fake meat in a can becoz I know u r 3rd world poor1:12 AM Sep 27th from web in reply to MoLteaser
@wgchristine R u going to India to donate your fat body? It can feed half the poor country LOL or r u going to eat them cuz u like curry?LOL1:08 AM Sep 27th from web in reply to wgchristine
@WGChristine Look at this girl http://www.myspace.com/hata… Fat, ugly & a Korean wannabe like you! :p LOL1:07 AM Sep 27th from web
@HelloMaiAzn U r fucking stupid LOL If philippines isn’t a poor 3rd world monkey island, what is poor? If they’re not poor, what is poor?LOL1:06 AM Sep 27th from web in reply to HelloMaiAzn
@jen_shwa Hey check this out! A 3rd world country full of monkeys are drowning and dying! ^^ http://bit.ly/17VjST 1:05 AM Sep 27th from web
@stupidsunye That’s y our English is bad. Coz we learn from our 3rd world fans who cant speak english either LOL Like Yenny said!10:48 PM Sep 26th from web in reply to stupidsunye
@Kirakoda My birthday is coming up soon! October 4! I’m going to turn 21 soon! U should really learn how to spell "retarded" UR SO STUPID :p7:25 PM Sep 26th from web in reply to Kirakoda
@alldanightlong Why do you think she’s so skinny? LOL You should try getting with her.7:22 PM Sep 26th from web in reply to alldanightlong
@alldanightlong What about me? Am I too ugly 4 u? Don’t tell anyone this, but Sun Mi is the biggest slut of the group.7:21 PM Sep 26th from web in reply to alldanightlong
@WGfollow Please don’t tell me not to come back 2 NYC becoz u found sum1 2 replace me coz I’m fat & ugly!10:26 AM Sep 26th from web
@2PMKhun How many times did you have 2 suck JYP’s cock 2 get in2 that gay boyband? I see Jay couldn’t take the anal sex nemore & quit LOL!!!7:58 AM Sep 26th from web in reply to 2PMKhun
@followjyp I need 2 get plastic surgery & go on a diet real fast b4 JYP makes up another lie I’m "sick" like what he did 2 현아 &kick me out!7:57 AM Sep 26th from web in reply to followjyp
@WGyubin We need 2 get plastic surgery & go on a diet real fast b4 JYP makes up another lie we r "sick" like what he did 2 현아 &kick us out!7:55 AM Sep 26th from web in reply to WGyubin
Good 2 be back in korea! I don’t have to be harassed by fat ugly white people or dirty smelly ugly southeast pacific islanders in America!11:59 PM Sep 25th from web
@hirataiyume Just look up our religions in the wonder girls profile 11:56 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to hirataiyume
I just made a filipino monkey maid and an Indonesian muslim whore cry LOL!!!!!11:47 PM Sep 25th from web
@ImGAGAL thanks 4 being our fan 11:36 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to ImGAGAL
@MoLteaser thanks 4 ur support! 11:35 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to MoLteaser
@sesshylover17 U want spam short fat boy? LOL u can’t afford it? I’ll give u money since i luv my fans so much!11:29 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to sesshylover17
@wgchristine thanks 4 being a fan and 4 ur support! u made me laugh a lot right now LOL!11:23 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to wgchristine
@wgchristine sun mi doesn’t look 2 happy 2 have 2 stand next to ur ugly horse teeth fat ass LOL ur head is 2 times bigger than hers LOL11:23 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to wgchristine
@ImGAGAL What kind of English is that? it doesn’t matter if u r stupid as long as we luv each other like yenny said. i live in korea.11:20 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to ImGAGAL
@MoLteaser thank u 4 ur support! u need money 2 buy spam becoz u r 3rd world poor? ok i will give u money coz we love each other!11:18 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to MoLteaser
@ImGAGAL my god! ur uglier than me! LOL nice improper english by the way stupid 3rd world peasant 11:16 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to ImGAGAL
@wgchristine congratulations 4 showing ur fat ugly face. r u too stupid 2 c i put my face all over my profile? LOL11:14 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to wgchristine
@funoo awww look who is crying now :p U shoudl of thought about that b4 ur ugly muslim monkey ass messaged me 1st LOL11:14 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to funoo
@yoobin_is_fat Im yubin and im in korea rite now coz i need plastic surgery on my fucked up face10:40 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to yoobin_is_fat
@funoo i told u since ur a fan of ours i will give u money so u can buy $2 Spam becoz u r too poor to afford that fake food LOL we luv all!10:35 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to funoo
@funoo repeating the same world all the time? what? pretending as ugly yubin? LOL thanks 4 admitting yubin is ugly ;0)9:32 PM Sep 25th from web in reply to funoo
@jen_shwa yeah it doesnt matter if we r stupid! as long as we love each other! like what 예은 said!9:20 PM Sep 25th from web

Get PAID to POST

2009-10-03T00:31:00.001-11:00

It's my firstime to join in POST TO PAY. It's a forum site were you can chat with different people in different countries. It's fun posting! Because you can choose a lot of topic like music, love, business, animals, food and MORE. The more you reply and create posts the more you earn.

To POST, to REPLY and to REFER you can earn money. The Minimum cashout is $9. Don't worry you can reach $9 in just 13 or 14 days. It's my 1st day today joining the MoraChat and i have my $0.53. They will deliver your money via paypal once you reach the $9 amount.

Here is the LINK to access in MoraChat

If you have some questions, you can post your comment below.

EARN EARN EARN MONEYYY!

2009-09-30T03:54:00.004-11:00

If you're a student, non-worker, professional or simply ANYONE who has a computer, website (blogsites, forum sites, social network sites) WHO is online everyday! And you need some extra cash in just 15 days. Come and Join us in "Get paid to promote at any location".

You don't need to waste your time clicking advertisements to earn money. You only need to promote the site on your website (blogsites, forum sites, social network sites) to earn money. Follow the steps below and start making money in 15 days. :)

Convert Your Traffic Into Cash, Only Simple Two-Step:

1 Create your FREE Account, Fill the form Here.
2 Place this promotion code to your site Start making money

Lee Min Ho/Jun Pyo had plastic surgery!

2009-09-19T19:30:00.001-11:00

Who will not love Lee Min Ho? With his gorgeous body, height of 6 ft., killer smile, tantalizing eyes and not so pointy and enormous nose but close to perfection. Who will not fall for that kind of guy??? Well, as what i heard in this previous weeks.. Did you know that our beloved Lee Min Ho had plastic surgery before? Yes! It's true. He's picture with his two surgeons were scattered on net with his before and after picture. News in Korea broadcasted that his medical information are stored in the clinic for data information.

Other says, "So what? that's why new technology is built for us to use them in our needs." Some says, "It's a BIG turnoff." How about you? what will be you reaction on the picture below?

this was gather from the website of the surgeon's clinic.

see the difference? from the eyelids to nose.

not satisfied?

here is another one.

satisfied now?

CCNA1 - Final Exam #1

2009-09-15T15:42:00.003-11:00

1. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?
Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
**Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer's website.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
**A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J

3. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
**only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers

4. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
vty
aux
console
**enable secret
enable password

5. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
**TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
**TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
**TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

6. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
**100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
**1000 Base LX

7. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
**192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254

8. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients.
Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
**1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

9. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
**address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
**issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1

11. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
**172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
**172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
**172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27

12. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
**A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
**All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
**After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

13. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
Flash
**NVRAM
RAM
ROM

14. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
access point
host
hub
**router
switch

15. Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
application
presentation
session
**transport

16. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login
The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
**The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
**Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

17. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
Switch-6J>
**Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#

18. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
**172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
**when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?
connectionless acknowledgements
**upper-layer connection-oriented protocols
Network layer IP protocols
Transport layer UDP protocols

21. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most
secure?
console
enable
**enable secret
VTY

22. hRefer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?
a FTP client
a telnet client
**a terminal emulation program
a web browser

23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)
The data is encrypted.
**The connection type is called a VTY session.
A server process is running on PC1.
A GET request is sent to RouterB.
**The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.

24. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?
**service port number
host logical address
device physical address
virtual connection identifier

25. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)
**A single broadcast domain is present
Two logical address ranges are required.
Three broadcast domains are shown.
Four networks are needed.
**Five collision domains exist.

26. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
**IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

27. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data
given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)
**segment1
segment2
**segment3
**segment4
segment5

28. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
**uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
heirarchical
**uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
**contains a network portion

29. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
**The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.

30. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)
This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
**The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
**The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.

31. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
**198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com
C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

32. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?
two networks routing the packets
**two applications communicating the data
two hosts at either end of the communication
two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame

33. Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet straight-through.
**The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use as a rollover cable.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet crossover.
**The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.

34. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
**3
4
5
7

35. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
**The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

36. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - rollover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - rollover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable
**Connection 1 - straight-through cable
**Connection 2 - crossover cable
**Connection 3 - straight-through cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable

37. Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
The host's default gateway.
The host's IP address.
**The host's primary domain name server.
The IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local.
The IP address of the host's homepage.

38. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
**The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
**The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

39. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
**10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
**172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
**192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

40. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
**physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
**media access control

41. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
0 to 255
**0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535

42. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
**255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128

43. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?
London
Paris
**Athens
Ankara
PC4

44. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
**Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94

45. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
**star
ring
point-to-point
multiaccess
mesh

46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
**subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure

47. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)
192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
**192.168.18.49
**192.168.18.52
**192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63

48. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
**The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
**The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
**The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IPaddress that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.

49. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
leaving host A
leaving ATL
**leaving Dallas
leaving NYC

50. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network

TEST IS ABOVE 90%

CCNA1 - Module 11 V.4

2009-09-15T15:41:00.004-11:00

1 Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
**UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2 In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
**when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

3 Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
**enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A

4 When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
**Console
Telnet
SSH

5 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
**RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login

6 Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
**show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory

7 Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
**global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
**enable mode

8 What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
**Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9 The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
**Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
**Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
**Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

10 Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
**IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11 Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
**NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

12 Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show NVRAM
**show startup-config
**show running-config
show version

13 Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
hot keys
**context-check
context-sensitive
**structured check
command override
**command syntax check

14 Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
**The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
**The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15 Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
**Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z

16 The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
**Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

17 In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
RAM
ROM
**Flash
NVRAM

18 On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
toinen

19 A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
**SSH

CCNA1 - Module 10 V.4

2009-09-15T15:41:00.001-11:00

1 Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a router's console port
**connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
**connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2 Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
**They segment broadcast domains.
**They interconnect different network technologies.
**Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

3 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
router
**hub
switch
wireless access point

4 A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
**UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5 Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
**Five broadcast domains are present.
**Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
xFive networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

6 Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
**DB 60
**Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
**smart serial
RJ 45

7 How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
**2046
2048
4094
4096

8 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
**host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail

9 Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
**192.168.3.54

10 Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
**Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
**Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
**Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

11 A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
**255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

12 Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
wireless access point
router
hub
**switch

13 Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
**3
4
5

14 What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
**loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

15 To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
**crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable

16 What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
**greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
xlimited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
xgreater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

17 Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
**255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

18 Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
**255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

19 What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
**rollover
patch cable

20 Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
**console interface

21 What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
**cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
**the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
**the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

22 Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
**router
repeater

23 Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
**5
7

CCNA1 - Module 9 V.4

2009-09-15T15:40:00.002-11:00

1 In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
**Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2 Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Network layer
Transport layer
**Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
**Data-link layer

3 Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
**the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
**the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4 What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
**addressing
**error detection
**frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution

5 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
**The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
recognizes streams of bits
**identifies the network layer protocol
**makes the connection with the upper layers
identifies the source and destination applications
**insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7 What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
MAC sublayer
Physical layer
**Logical Link Control sublayer
Network layer

8 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
**A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
header field - preamble and stop frame
**data field - network layer packet
data field - physical addressing
trailer field - FCS and SoF

10 Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
**Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
**A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
**Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12 Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application
physical
transport
internet
data link
**network access

13 What is the primary purpose of ARP?
translate URLs to IP addresses
**resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14 Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
**No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15 Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
**A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
**A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
**copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
**contains a 3 byte OUI
**6 bytes long
32 bits long

17 Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
reduction in cross-talk
**minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
**increase in the throughput of communications

18 What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
coaxial thicknet
**copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
**optical fiber
shielded twisted pair

19 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
**BA
A1
B3
1C

20 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
**any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time

CCNA1 - Module 8 V.4

2009-09-15T15:40:00.000-11:00

1 Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
Xbackbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

2 In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
**RJ-45
Type F

3 When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
**when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

4 With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
**the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

5 Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
**Physical

6 An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
**OTDR
TDR
multimeter

7 XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
**coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
**Cat6 UTP
STP

8 What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
**Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

9 What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
**frequency
amplitude
**throughput
crosstalk
**bandwidth

10 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
**crossover cable
straight-through cable

11 In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
**fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

12 Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
kolmas

13 Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
**wireless
acoustic

14 Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
**It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
**It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15 Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
**generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source

16 What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
**more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17 What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
**the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

18 What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
**create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

CCNA1 - Module 7 V.4

2009-09-15T15:39:00.002-11:00

1 Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
**non-deterministic
**less overhead
one station transmits at a time
**collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing

2 What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
**facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated

3 Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
**2
4
8

4 What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
**Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
**00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

6 What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
**They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
**They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
**They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

7 Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
**source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
**source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

8 What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
**media sharing
application processes
**logical topology
intermediary device function

9 What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
**is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10 What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
**Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
**Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

11 Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
**Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
**Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

12 Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
**MAC
HDLC
NIC

13 What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
**Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
**defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
**Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

14 What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
**The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

15 What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
**The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
**The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16 What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
**provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17 Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
**the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
**the physical layer implementation
**the number of hosts to be interconnected

18 What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
**support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

19 A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
**physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

20 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
**Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

CCNA1 - Module 6 V.4

2009-09-15T15:37:00.002-11:00

1 How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
128
64
48
32 **

2 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192 **
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252

3 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33 **
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

4 Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
/27 **
/25
/28

5 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network. **

6 What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0 **
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

7 Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address. **
This is not a valid address.

8 What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded **
varies in length **
is used to forward packets **
uses flat addressing

9 What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000 **
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

10 A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160 **
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176

11 Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host. **
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

12 What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host. **
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host. **

13 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254 **
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192 **
192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224

14 Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
larger address space **
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service **
authentication and encryption **
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4

15 Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing **

16 What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities **
addressing simplification

17 Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70 **
192.168.99.5 **
172.18.88.90 **
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5

18 Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router. **
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself. **

19 Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26 **
172.16.4.193 /26 **
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27 **

20 What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet
a network **
an octet
a radi **

21 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host. **

22 Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
servers **
network printers **
routers **
remote workstations
laptops

CCNA1 - Module 5 V.4

2009-09-15T15:35:00.000-11:00

1 In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
**destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

2 What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
**source and destination IP address

3 In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
**The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
**time-to-live
header checksum

5 Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
**network portion
gateway address

6 Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
**192.133.219.1

7 If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
**The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

8 What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
**static
standard

10 When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
**The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
**The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
**gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
**geographic location
**ownership

12 What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
**the next-hop address

13 Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
**router
hub
switch
**firewall
access point
bridge

14 What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
**performance degradation
**security issues
**limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility

15 Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
**4
5
7
8
11

16 Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
**If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
**If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
**If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
**10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
**Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
**Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19 Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
**192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
**192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20 What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
**provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
**prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21 What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
**A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA1 - Module 4 V.4

2009-09-15T15:34:00.000-11:00

1 Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
**The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728

3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
**acknowledgments
source and destination

4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery

5 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6 Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect

7 Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
**1850
3431
3475

8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535

11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS

12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
**flow control
**low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements

13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments

14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port

15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
**identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media

17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
**encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery

18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network

19 Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.

20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
**UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

CCNA1 - Module 3 V.4

2009-09-15T15:33:00.002-11:00

1. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
used by the server to resolve names

2. What are two forms of application layer software?
applications
syntax

3. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
FTP

4. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks?
decentralized resources
resource sharing without a dedicated server

5. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
application

6. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications?
acts as both a client and server within the same communication
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
does not require specialized software

7. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network

8. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model?
DNS, SMTP, POP

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers?
MDA, MTA

10. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser?
HTTPS
HTTP

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email?
receives email from the client's MUA
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers

12. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
does not support encryption

13. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function?
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

14. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
DNS

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80

16. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks?
initiate data exchanges
may upload data to servers

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
SMB

18. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model?
centralized administration
security is easier to enforce

19. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type?
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

TEST IS ABOVE 90%

CCNA1 - Module 2 V.4

2009-09-15T13:49:00.003-11:00

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical**
Data Link**
Session

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection**
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.**
The process port number is added.

4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch**

5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link**
network
transport

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data**
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals**
originate the flow of data
manage data flows**
final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host**
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical**
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN**
Network C -- LAN**
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN**

10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication**
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device**
enables the reassembly of complete messages**
tracks delay between end devices

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
**encapsulation

12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
**a layer specific encapsulation

13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
**an end device
an intermediate device
a media device

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
**E, F, H, I, J

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
**intermediary

16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
**A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
**The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
**A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
**LAN
WLAN

18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
**data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets

19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flow
**retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data

20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
**to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
**define the structure of layer specific PDU's
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
**outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
**require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors

TEST IS ABOVE 90%

CCNA2 - Module 1 V.4

2009-09-15T13:43:00.001-11:00

1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.

5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

7. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

10. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
cross-over
Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

17. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded

18. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
1
4

19. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
Flash memory

20. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

21. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

22. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
the Layer 2 source and destination address

TEST IS ABOVE 90%

CCNA2 - Module 2 V.4

2009-09-15T13:42:00.005-11:00

1. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
holdtime
local interface

2. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

3. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
No clock rate has been set.

4. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
6. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

8. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

10. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device

11. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

12. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface IP address

13. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

14. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

15. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
traceroute
show ip route

16. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.

17. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/25

18. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

19. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
20. A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.
22. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

23. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

TEST IS ABOVE 90%

CCNA2 - Module 3 V.4

2009-09-15T13:42:00.002-11:00

1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
show ip route

5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design

7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
shortest-path first calculations

10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing

14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown

A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
The administrative distance of this route is 1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
The cost for this link has a value of 129.

19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
OSPF can be used between the routers.

20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
3

21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

CCNA2 - Module 4 V.4

2009-09-15T13:41:00.005-11:00

1. Which event will cause a triggered update?
a route is installed in the routing table

2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
updates are broadcast at regular intervals
broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

7. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
route poisoning

11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
routing loops
inconsistent traffic forwarding
inconsistent routing table entries

13. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
RIPv1
EIGRP
RIPv2

17. What is a routing loop?
a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
inconsistent routing tables
incorrectly configured static routes

19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
16

20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?
adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route

21. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
3

CCNA2 - Module 5 V.4

2009-09-15T13:41:00.002-11:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

2. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
3

3. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?
155 seconds

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

6. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

7. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

8. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
30

9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

10.Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

12. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

13. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
RouterB(config)# no router rip

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

15. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
debug ip rip

16. Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
10.0.0.0/8

18. Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?
RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.

19. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

20. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
only the gateway router

CCNA2 - Module 6 V.4

2009-09-15T13:40:00.003-11:00

1. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
reduced routing table size
reduced routing update traffic

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
192.168.0.0/21

4. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
32-bit address
subnet mask

5. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
the shortage of IP addresses

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
24

8. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
CIDR

9. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

10. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.224 for Sales
255.255.255.240 for QA

11. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
84

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/27

13. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.224/28

14. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
OSPF
RIP v2
EIGRP

15. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
29

16. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
192.168.2.130/25

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
192.168.4.15/29

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
Because RIPv2 does not support VLSM, the subnet masks will not be allowed.
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

20. What is a supernet?
a summarization of classful addresses

CCNA2 - Module 11 V.4

2009-09-15T13:40:00.000-11:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?
an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
1786

3. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
area id
hello interval
network type

4. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
designated router
backup designated router

5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
bandwidth

6. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?
R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

9. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?
B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

12. Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?
6

13. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
110

14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR.
What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?
A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
1787

16. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?
192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?
nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

18. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
A FULL adjacency is formed.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)
DR for network 192.168.1.200
BDR for network 192.168.1.204

20. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?
OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

22. Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?
There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

23. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

25. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?
hello packets

CCNA2 - Module 10 V.4

2009-09-15T13:39:00.003-11:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

2. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
whenever the network topology changes
upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
all routers in the area have identical link state databases

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
cost of the link

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
Dijkstra

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
IS-IS
OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
B and C

CCNA2 - Module 9 V.4

2009-09-15T13:39:00.000-11:00

1. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
topology table

2. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3

3. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
query neighbors for a new route
search topology table for a feasible successor

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
the route is in a stable state

5. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
routing
topology

6. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
the routing protocol
the feasible distance of the route
the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router

7. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.

8. Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
routes learned from other routing protocols
EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems

9. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# no auto-summary

10. Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.

12. Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

13. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what path will packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
A,B,E

15. By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
delay
bandwidth

16. Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a common routing policy to the Internet?
autonomous system

17. Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful. However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.

18. In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise

19. The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the primary route to this network fails?
The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

20. What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source external to the autonomous system?
170

21. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send to Router1 and Router3?
unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

CCNA2 - Module 7 V.4

2009-09-15T13:15:00.000-11:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20
Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
Router2(config-router)# version 2

4. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

5. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
They both use hop count as a metric.
They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

8. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in
this network?
The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

9. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252

10. Why does the router respond with an error?
The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.
What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
15 hops

11. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

12.Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

13. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

15. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# defaultinformation
originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
propagates the default route to all routers in the network

16. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
Configure RIPv2 on routers.

17. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
subnet mask

18. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

19. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0

20. When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

21. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

CCNA2 - Module 8 V.4

2009-09-15T13:12:00.000-11:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
All of the routes listed are network routes.

2. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet

3. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
172.16.0.0/16

4. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:
R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1
What type of route is this?
a level 1 ultimate network route

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
do nothing, ip classless is on by default

6. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
use the default route

7. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
7

8. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
send packet out Serial 0/0/1

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
There is at least one parent and one child route

10. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
forward out interface Serial0/0/1

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
ip classless
A router has the following entries in its routing table:
S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2
O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1
D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1
The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58. Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
the RIP route

12. What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.

13. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched
first and why?
172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route

15. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination

16. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
255.255.255.0

17. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
RIPv2

18. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
administrative distance

Tips and guides to make EASY MONEY via internet

2009-09-14T16:07:00.003-11:00

Hi Guys! Since it's my 1st post here ever, i will give you my tips on how to make money via internet! Surely, everyone of us wants to make money even in our busy schedules. Mind you guys, even a kid who is 13 can make easy money via internet. Yes it's true! Based on my experiences and my friend's also. Familiar with those pay-to-click websites? Well, It's my way to make extra money. That's why I'm here to help you on how to make money also. See, how kind I am? :)

Here are clicking websites you have to join and it's definitely paying you back, via payplal/alertpay. Be sure you have those account guys! Just Follow my link and boom! you can now start clicking ads. GOODLUCK!

1. Bux.gs Click and earn money

You just click a link and view a website for 30 seconds. You can earn more referring friends. Get paid up to $0.015 for each website you view and up to $0.01 for each website your referrals view. Payment requests will be processed through paypal/alertpay.

2. ClickPayCash

As a welcome to the site, all new members start as upgraded members for the first 24 hours and get $0.01 for every link they click on the Surf Ads page and $0.01 for every link a referal makes.

3. NoMinCashout

You can get $0.02 for every link they click on the Surf Ads page and $0.0125 for every link a referal makes.

4. GoldenGalaxy Revolution PTC site

What you receive as a member

Earn up to $0.02 (2 cents) per click.
Earn up to $0.02 (2 cents) for every ad your referrals click.
Get Paid and receive it instantly!

5. NeoBux -- the innovation in PTC

Unlike many other PTC sites, our goal is to innovate and reach the needs of our users as well as our advertisers.
Earn up to $0.02 (2 cents) per click.
Earn up to $0.02 (2 cents) for every ad your referrals click.
Access detailed statistics of your clicks, earnings and even of your referral's clicks and activities.

Pay and receive instantly!

Glad to here comments from you guys. :)